What are Messianic Psalms? The popular way to identify which psalms are "messianic" is two-fold:
1) psalms that the NT records Jesus to have prayed
2) psalms used in NT as containing prophecy that was literally fulfilled in the coming of the Messiah
Now, it's conceivable to have an even stricter view that only the portions of Scripture quoted by or in reference to Christ in the NT are "Messianic". I've heard rumors of this kind of position, but don't know anyone personally who holds to it.
A broader view allows the Messianic class to be applied to psalms and/or portions of psalms that echo those quoted in the NT or else do not fully fit the historical situation of the author (but only seem to apply to Jesus). Thus, psalms that suggest the deity of the king (e.g. Ps 45:6-7) or moral perfection (e.g. Ps 7:8) are taken as prophetic and predictive, not true prayers of Israelites for their own time, while Psalms that include confession of sin are excluded from Messianic consideration (e.g. Ps 51).
But do you think this delineation between Messianic and non-Messianic portions of Scripture does full justice to the teaching of Jesus in Luke 24:27 and 44-45?
ESV Luke 24:27 And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he interpreted to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself.
ESV Luke 24:44: Then he said to them, "These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled."
Posted by Eric Pyle at April 12, 2004 9:24 PM